A judge in Washington put an injunction on a presidential executive order, and Democrats, et al., cheer everywhere (Associated Press, “U.S. judge puts travel ban on hold,” Feb. 4, The Columbian).
Just wondering … can a judge do this on his own? Does an individual judge from anywhere have that much power? Does this action mean a judge with a different opinion override the first judge? The whole business appears to be a political action by a partisan judge rather than an objective ruling.